Discussion about this post

User's avatar
Lance S. Bush's avatar

I’m a moral antirealist and routinely find myself defending antirealist positions from bad objections, even if I don’t endorse those antirealist positions. This is true of speaker relativism as it is of error theory and noncognitivism. So, thanks for the post, and it’s good to see more people expressing views yours. The original tweet asks if anyone is a speaker relativist. Such remarks are often unclear. But if the claim the one you offer:

“Statement about morality are really statements about one’s own values”

…these sorts of remarks trouble me. Which statements, exactly? Is this an empirical claim about what people in general mean when they engage in moral discourse? Or a psychological claim about what they think?

If not, and it is instead a kind of definition, e.g., “if something is a moral claim, then it is a statement about the speaker’s own values,” and we go out and observe people saying things like “murder is wrong,” then are these people making statements about their own values regardless of whether that is their intention? For instance, suppose someone is a moral realist and is not intending to communicate their own values, but is instead intending to communicate what they consider to be stance-independent moral facts. Are their intentions irrelevant, and their statement nevertheless purports to be a statement about their own values? Or, instead, is this person not actually making a moral statement?

The same holds for your second definition::

"Statements about morality are really statements about the values that a better version of you [better as defined by you] would hold."

I prefer accounts like this to realist accounts, since I can at least make more sense of this account than of realist accounts, but it’s again unclear to me which statements this kind of account applies to. This isn’t what I mean when I make moral claims, for instance. Unless what I say doesn’t express what I mean. You say:

"Rather the claim is that we should construe moral language as literally being about one’s values"

…This sounds more like a prescriptive than a descriptive claim. That is, it looks like a proposal that we use moral language this way, rather than a claim that we in fact do so. The remarks that follow seem to reinforce this. But if this is the intent, this wasn’t clear from the outset, so I’m a bit puzzled as to whether this a descriptive or prescriptive claim. If one’s position is “we should use language this way” it seems a bit strange to say that “moral statements mean X” rather than “I think it’s a good idea to use moral statements to mean X.”

Next, you mention some desiderata we might want to get out of moral language, including that it is objective (or “ersatz equivalents”), but your proposal “unfortunately” doesn’t give you this. Why is this unfortunate? I don’t find such accounts satisfactory myself, but I also don’t find anything unfortunate about their absence. I’m puzzled when people do grant that there’d be something good or desirable about objective moral values.

In addition, there are some other concerns I have with the advantages of your proposal. If it is a prescriptive proposal, some of the listed benefits wouldn’t make much sense, since they seem to be advantages in account for how people already speak and act when it comes to morality, e.g., “It explains why we debate morality and can do so profitably. We have enough common ground in our ethical feelings, and very possibly, our ideal selves have even more.”

I really enjoyed the remarks on indeterminacy at the end. I argue for descriptive folk metaethical indeterminacy in my dissertation, and marshal a number of theoretical points and empirical findings to make my case.

Great post, glad to see people discussing metaethics here in a thoughtful and substantive way.

Expand full comment
KrakenHead's avatar

I’ve never really understood why people find the reasons stuff so attractive. I’m an anti-realist myself but don’t see why the realists should have to explain how moral reasons work. Why is it not coherent for the realist to just admit that moral considerations aren’t motivating? To complain that moral considerations don’t provide reason to act seems like just a less clear way of stating the better objection, that it’s not clear where moral considerations are supposed to get their “objective” bite in the first place. But if the realists somehow succeeded at showing that moral statements can be true in some universal sense, I don’t think they need to show that their truth provides motivation for action or anything like that

Expand full comment
6 more comments...

No posts